Jun11

### Related Posts

The main idea is that the we use x because the Spanish used $\chi$ (chi) as the first sound of the Arabic word for “something” because they couldn’t say the correct “sh” sound. I recollect a similar argument made somewhere else with slightly different details, though, sadly, I cannot remember them precisely, nor their location. I was unable to track down references at the time to verify this argument and so dismissed it as a Just So Story. Since it has resurfaced it would be interesting to see evidence. Does anyone know of any?